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Davidson’s anomalous monism

by Edward Feser

Over at my personal blog: Some more philosophy of mind, if that's your bag.

Posted by Edward Feser on May 14, 2009 1:25 AM | Del.icio.us |

Comments (11)

"As I have argued elsewhere (e.g. here), the correct way to understand mental-physical “interaction” is on the model of what Aristotelians call formal causation rather than efficient causation."

What, exactly, is the nature of this causal relationship? Most modern people understand efficient causation and what is means to be an efficient cause of something. But in what way does something's form cause it to exist?

Posted by Edward | May 14, 2009 6:07 PM

Most modern people understand efficient causation...

Edward, that is a very optimistic generalization : )

Here I thought that most modern people didn't understand anything, least of all philosophy.

On a serious note, I have read your two articles on philosophy of the mind and am grateful for your work. My main line of study is not philosophy. Furthermore, I am very cynical about receiving an honest account from popular introductory works on philosophy and similar commentaries. I think I have a well founded fear that they too often read the present (and their own pet theories) into the past works they comment upon and pretend to elucidate. This has tended to throw me upon reading the original works themselves, with only the humble sail of my lone mind to navigate the waters. Thank you for a little helpful wind.

Posted by Brett | May 14, 2009 7:48 PM

Brett,
I'm pretty sure the Edward Feser who posted the article and the "Edward" who responded are not the same person. I'll admit to the same confusion in another thread in which the latter Edward commented. Feser usually has his last name and a link in his comments.

Posted by Ryan | May 14, 2009 8:21 PM

How about this name? Seems a fitting distinction.

Posted by Edward the Lesser | May 14, 2009 8:26 PM

But in what way does something's form cause it to exist?

That's easy --

As we learned in university concerning the rudiments of Biochemistry, "Form determines Function".

Roughly speaking, a particular type of protein only exists due to form, which conformation allows for its specific purpose (a certain capability/activity); its intended function. Absent form, it virtually becomes non-existent.

Viola!

Posted by aristocles | May 14, 2009 8:59 PM

I mean in a specifically Aristotelian/Thomistic sense. It seems as if you are saying that formal causation is intrinsically interrelated with final causation, but it is still not entirely clear to me.

Posted by Edward the Lesser | May 14, 2009 9:11 PM

Roughly speaking, a particular type of protein only exists due to form, which conformation allows for its specific purpose (a certain capability/activity); its intended function. Absent form, it virtually becomes non-existent.

Your Biochemistry professor was obviously very capable, and you are perfectly correct concerning proteins. But I'm afraid the waters get much deeper when the soul is considered, and judging from your "viola" you knew that : D

For the protein form and function are entangled to the point of being synonymous. While this might have been true of the human in Eden, it isn't true of the American (and this isn't false humility speaking).

Nor do you, by simply expanding the model of the protein exponentially, get the form/function relationship of the human. It is just this sort of hand waving that underpins a lot of the materialistic and social Darwinian arguments that creep into discussion all the time. There is a difference in kind between the physical function of the protein and the operation of the human creature.

Edward (your self-effacement, by the way, proves you are not the lesser), so far as I understand it, the Aristotelian reckoning of formal causation would include the potential purpose of the human creature (not a hot topic at all) and its relationship to an inventory of its parts (also, not much debate here either, the soul is still a given these days right?)

Posted by Brett | May 15, 2009 12:33 AM

Hello Edward (the other Edward),

That's a big question, but basically the form (or, more precisely, the substantial form) of a thing is the essence or nature it instantiates, and it "causes" a thing in the sense of making or constituting it as the kind of thing it is. For example, what makes a human being the kind of thing it is is rational animality. As Aristocles and Brett indicate, the form of a thing is accordingly more than merely the configuration of its parts, and includes the tendencies or ends toward which it is naturally directed.

"Cause" in Aristotelian-Thomistic metaphysics has a broader meaning than it has in modern philosophy; the term "explanation" is closer to what A-T has in mind by it. Moderns often regard the Aristotelian view as odd or eccentric, but in fact it (or some variation on it) was the standard view until only relatively recently in intellectual history. Historically, the moderns are the odd ones, and their lack of a historical sense has (I would say) given them an inflated sense of their own grasp of what is "intuitive" vs. "odd." (This is a pet peeve of mine. I've got a million of 'em.)

Along those lines, I would dispute the claim that moderns really understand efficient causes, BTW. What they mean by "cause" is really a bastardized version of what the older tradition meant by efficient cause. From an A-T point of view, formal and efficient causes necessarily go hand in hand and the latter are unintellligible without the former. The endless puzzles over causation that have afflicted modern philosophy since Hume (actually, since before Hume) are a direct consequence of this severing of efficient from final cause. Again, I've discussed this elsewhere, e.g. in TLS.

Posted by Edward Feser | May 15, 2009 1:48 AM

:) Which I've bought and which is on its way over the pacific.

Posted by martin | May 15, 2009 2:22 AM

I do plan on getting your book, probably ordering it off Amazon. It sounds like an extremely important book. I'll need while I am taking multiple modern philosophy courses at once next semester.

I obviously do not have as good a grasp on this as you do. When I said efficient cause I meant in the sense that a child comes from his parents or a table comes from a carpenter. I'm probably stating it as loosely as possible, and I am not, as you have shown, entirely correct either.

Posted by Edward the Lesser | May 15, 2009 8:23 AM

I just realized that my use of the word cause almost necessarily entails the exclusion of formal and final causes, the word 'explanation' makes it much clearer. It is hard to shake off modern terminology. It has built an almost impenetrable barrier between modern man and pre-modern philosophy, especially Aristotle.

Posted by Edward the Lesser | May 15, 2009 8:34 AM

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